I had an interesting conversation with some fellow believers earlier this evening regarding the tithe. The word tithe means a tenth. These believers held the position that the tithe, being commanded in the Law of Moses, was not for the church today. It was a command to the Jewish people to provide for the Levites who held no land and could not feed themselves. This is partially correct, but in actuality according to the law, their were 3 different tithes. One, from Numbers 18:21-32 was given to the Levites; another from Deuteronomy 14:22 was used for the celebration of convocations of worship in the sanctuary; and a third from Deuteronomy 14:28-29 was collected every 3rd year to provide for those in need. But I digress. Is the tithe of the law? The answer to that is yes, and no. You see, the tithe predates the law by nearly a thousand years. So does it apply to us today?
The first place we see the tithe mentioned is in Genesis 14:20. Here we see Abram(later Abraham) tithe. He tithes to Melchizadek, king of Salem, Priest of the God Most High, after winning a victory over his enemy. The second place, also in Genesis, involves Jacob at Bethel in Genesis 28:22 where Jacob offers a tithe to God when he realizes that God "will be with" him in v. 20. So let's take a look at these instances as they are the first place in the bible the tithe is mentioned.
The first thing we notice is that unlike in the law, these tithes were not commanded. They were voluntary and both Abraham and Jacob gladly gave of the tithe. By these gestures we must assume that the tithe was a regular practice involving God. Since the amount by percentage was the same, we can also safely assume that the tithe, a tenth, was the expected amount that was given to God. The fact the tithe, a tenth, is also represented in the law also confirms this. So how does this apply to us?
Well, from Genesis 14 let us move to Hebrews chapters 5, 6 and 7. Hebrews 5:6, quoting Psalm 110:4, and referring to Jesus says, "You are a priest forever, according to the order of Melchizadek." Hebrews 6:20 confirms this as it states, "where the forerunner has entered for us, even Jesus, having become High Priest forever according to the order of Melchizadek." Finally, Hebrews 7:1-3 tells us this; "For this Melchizadek, king of Salem, priest of the Most High God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings and blessed him, to whom also Abraham gave a tenth part(tithe) of all, first being translated "king of righteousness," and then also king of Salem, meaning "king of peace," without father, without mother, without genealogy, having neither beginning of days nor end of days nor end of life, but made like the Son of God, remains a priest continually."
I know, that's alot of scripture, so let me simplify it. This was written so that it would be established that the priesthood of Melchizadek, of which Jesus is of the order, was established as greater than the Levitical priesthood. So how does this apply to tithing? Well, a tithe was given to the Levites. A tithe was also given to Melchizadek. The priesthood of Melchizadek preceded and was greater than the Levitical priesthood. Jesus, of the order of Melchizadek, is our High Priest. So why would we not tithe unto Him?
In Genesis 28 with Jacob this principle of tithing to God is also cemented. Again, it is not commanded, as it was in the law, but both Abraham and Jacob freely and gladly gave a tithe. So the question must be asked: why should we not tithe? I do not believe we are commanded to tithe. I do however believe we should want to tithe from our gratitude and love for God, and that the tithe is expected. It is God who has given us all that we have, surely He is entitled to at least a tenth of it back as firstfruits of what He has blessed us with?
We must understand, a tithe is not to be confused with an offering on which Paul teaches in 2 Corinthians 8 and 9. An offering is a gift above the giving of the tithe. The tithe is established as God's standard of what should be returned to Him from those He has given to. It was established prior to the law. It was the standard for God's people prior to the law and as part of the law, why would it not still be His standard today?
While their is no scripture in the New Testament that specifically commands us to tithe, their also is no scripture that says we don't have to tithe. Could it be that the first century church simply knew that the tithe was part of God's economy from the beginning, and did not feel the need to tell us to do something we should know to do anyway? Do we believe that Jesus is any less deserving of a tithe than Melchizadek or than the Levites? We can claim grace as our reason, that we are not bound by the religious elements of the law. But how does the law apply to the scripture we find in Genesis and Hebrews?
Abraham and Jacob clearly felt compelled to tithe, even though they were not commanded to do so. Why do we not feel the same compulsion? Why is it we look for every reason possible to withhold from God what has always been given to Him since He called out peoples unto His name? The average giving in the Southern Baptist Convention last year was 2.3% of the average household income. And while the law does not apply to us, does the warning in Malachi 1 about offering less than our best not apply? Are we robbing God? The tithe in our day is done of our own freewill. But because it is not commanded of us does not mean it is not expected of us. Do we think so little of Jesus that we believe that the grace we are saved by comes without sacrifice on our part? Salvation is a free gift from God. But do we owe Him anything less than our best, given gladly from a heart that seeks to glorify Him? The tithe glorifies God. This is why we should tithe.
Unlike the law Abram and Jacob’s tithes came off defiled pagan land and would have been rejected as HOLY tithes under the Law from Leviticus to Luke.
ReplyDeleteUnlike the Law which commanded tithes, Abram was commanded to tithe by obeying the law of the land which required spoils of war to his local king priest. The Bible does not say that Abram gave willingly.
Unlike honest Bible expositors, you have left off the “if” of Jacob’s tithe and added “gladly.” That is fundamentally dishonest. Jacob was telling God what to do.
Abram and Jacob’s tithe was indeed a regular practice of their PAGAN culture which they brought with them from Babylon. Do some research. Tithing was no more moral and eternal than was idolatry, child sacrifice and temple prostitution.
The tithe of the Law had absolutely nothing in common with the tithe of Abram or Jacob. While money was common, the true HOLY tithe was always only food from inside God’s HOLY land. Tithes could not come from what man increased, from Gentiles or from outside Israel. That is the definition used in Malachi 3 and Matthew 23:23 and never changes.
The tithe does not apply to us any more than we require tithe recipients NOT to own land or to KILL anybody entering the sanctuary per Numbers 18.
Ps 110:4 is crucial. Christ was a type of the ORDER of the historical Melchizedek and not of his person. We are told that 7 times in Hebrews.
Hebrews 7:5 establishes the tithe as a commandment of the law. Heb 7:12 says that it is necessary to change the law. And Heb 7:18 says that the “commandment going before” was changed by being “annulled.” How clear can it be?
It is dishonest to equate tithes with firstfruits per Lev 27:30-34. Firstfruits were very small token offerings per Deu 26:1-4 and Neh 10:35-38. They are never the same.
The tithe was only a “standard” for food producers who lived inside Israel. Period.
There are plenty of NT post-Calvary scriptures teaching that the tithe has disappeared. Its definition, covenant, priesthood, Temple, Levitical cities and purpose have all ended. OT tithes could not be used for missionaries or building construction.
The first century church did not tithe except the Jewish Christians in Jerusalem who continued to tithe to the temple system per Acts 21:20-21. History proves that tithing was not an enforced law for over 700 years and did not become common in the USA until after 1875.
If you must teach law-tithing, then teach 23%. And you must remain among the poorest of the land. Otherwise, preach NT Spirit-blessed evangelism and watch your church grow correctly.
Russell Earl Kelly, PHD
www.tithing-russkelly.com
So God does not honor the tithe's offered by Abraham and Jacob? Melchizadek, the priest of the God Most High does not rebuke Abraham for offering a tithe that is a mere pagan tradition? Jacob is not rebuked by God for giving a tithe that is pagan in origin/ How are these not viewed as genuine acts of worship when God's priest and God Himself clearly accept the tithes? Jacob's tithe is in clear response to God's promise to him in Gen 28:13-15 and his recognition of God in v. 16-17. How is Jacob not genuinely worshipping God? How is Abraham not genuinely worshipping God and simply following pagan tradition? Melchizadek was not a pries of a Caananite deity, but of the same God Abram worshipped. It clearly preceded the law, so how would the law affect it? It was of the land God had given Abraham, so how is the land defiled at this time?
ReplyDeleteYou completely neglect Hebrews 7:6-11 where once again we see Abraham blessed and offering a tithe that recognizes God's delievring of the victory, which Melchizadek also declares in Genesis 14:20. It was done voluntarily and as an act of genuine worship. According to v. 8 mere mortal men received the tithe under the law, but with Abraham the eternal priesthood of Melchizadek, of which Crist is of the order does. If that order received voluntary tithes in Abraham's tithe, why not now? The priesthood of Melchizadek is established as greater that the priesthood of Aaron. The law is changed according to v.11, but is the act of worshipping God throigh the tithe? The tithe is no longer commanded, but does that mean it is no longer honored by God as a genuine act of worship. I never stated you had to tithe. I said we should tithe as it honors and glorifies God, just as it did when Abraham and Jacob tithed. Where in scfripture does it say the early church did not tithe? I acknowledge it does not say they did, but where does it say they did not? They clearly had revealed to them through the author of Hebrews that Christ os of the order of Melchizadek. If he received voluntary tithes. Why would Christ also not receive them?